Question 94
Is there any use of the moral law to man since the fall?
Although no man, since the fall, can attain to righteousness and life by the moral law;a yet there is great use thereof, as well common to all men, as peculiar either to the unregenerate, or the regenerate.b
Is there any use of the moral law to man since the fall?
Although no man, since the fall, can attain to righteousness and life by the moral law;a yet there is great use thereof, as well common to all men, as peculiar either to the unregenerate, or the regenerate.b
a. Romans 8:3; Galatians 2:16
Romans 8:3
8:3 For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh:
8:3 For what the law was powerless to do in that it was weakened by the flesh, God did by sending His own Son in the likeness of sinful man, as an offering for sin. He thus condemned sin in the flesh,
Galatians 2:16
2:16 Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified.
2:16 know that a man is not justified by works of the law, but by faith in Jesus Christ. So we, too, have believed in Christ Jesus, that we may be justified by faith in Christ and not by works of the law, because by works of the law no one will be justified.
King James VersionBerean Standard Bible
b. 1 Timothy 1:8
1 Timothy 1:8
1:8 But we know that the law is good, if a man use it lawfully;
1:8 Now we know that the law is good, if one uses it legitimately.
King James VersionBerean Standard Bible
